Since national recognition of same-sex marriage is foreseeable, desperate critics have found another buttress to hide behind to discriminate: religious liberty. In order for any legal buttress to stand, it must be both clear and consistent.
When someone says that serving cake to a “suspected” homosexual violates their religious liberties, where precisely does this religious tenant come from? Does the edict come from their church doctrine or are they simply cherry-picking random Scripture to empower their discontent?
Is doctrine clear that the parishioner is responsible to judge and discipline transgressors? If I’m not mistaken, the New Testament leaves judging and discipline to God, not the local baker. Is the doctrine consistently applied to other transgressions listed as abominations? Suspected adulterers, fornicators, idolaters, those who may have cursed their parents, those who eat crab or oysters, or even women wearing men’s pants (Leviticus/Corinthians) would be targets for religious discrimination. Are these sinners to be denied their cake also?
In America, we have the right to practice the religion of our choice, but unless we alter our form of government to a theocracy, we do not have the singular authority to judge and impose punishment on others for our personal beliefs.
Al and Tami Baun, Boise